But don't you see that claiming that there are no absolutes is in itself an absolute statement?
Has anyone claimed in this thread that there are no absolutes, period? If so, I must have missed that.
Those of us with even a very basic knowledge of Physics would probably accept that there is an absolute minimum temperature, known as 'absolute zero', or -273.15 degrees C. Apparently, this is the point at which the fundamental particles of nature have minimal vibrational motion, retaining only quantum mechanical, zero-point energy-induced particle motion.
Now it's quite in order for someone to speculate or hypothesize that there might exist an 'absolute morality'. However, demonstrating the existence of such an 'absolute morality' would be very problematical, and perhaps impossible, without a very clear and precise definition of what morality is.
Without such a clear and precise definition, we can have no more than a range of unsubstantiated opinions. For example, a number of individuals in a group at a particular location on a particular day would probably express different opinions about the temperature. Some might say it feels rather hot and uncomfortable. Others might say it feels just right, and yet others who are used to living in the hot, steamy tropics might express the opinion that it's rather cool. So who's right?
If there's an accurate thermometer in the room, we can determine that the temperature is approximately 28 degrees C, for example. There can be no argument about that.
Tony Jay seems to be of the view that 'certain things are wrong at all times in all circumstances', and that this is the basis for the existence of a transcendent, absolute morality. But can such a view be substantiated with practical examples?
In science, if one finds exceptions to any particular theory, then the theory is considered to be faulty, inaccurate or even plain wrong, without another satisfactory explanation for the exceptions.
Let's consider the example of slavery. Is it right or wrong? Is it moral or immoral? To answer 'yes' or 'no' to such questions is to fall into the false duality of either/or, like, for example, it's either hot or its cold.
Slavery has existed for millennia. Most ancient civilizations depended upon it. But is all slavery wrong at all times and in all circumstances, as Toy Jay implies?
It is reasonable to presume that there have been many instances throughout history when certain individual slaves have considered themselves to be very fortunate to have been the 'property' of a wealthy and benevolent owner who took good care of his slaves and provided them with the comfort and security that other free, but penniless, people could only dream of.
Which activity is more immoral, the practice of a wealthy business man employing poor people at a 'near starvation' wage, but giving them the freedom to leave their employment despite there being no better options available to them; or the practice of a similarly wealthy person insisting on owning his workers but providing them with a level of comfort, security and accommodation far above the circumstances of the others in the community where they came from?
In other words, whilst slavery in principle can be considered 'less than ideal' and a generally defective law, the more important moral issue is the way people with power and wealth treat those who are poor and less privileged.
Here's an interesting story relevant to this issue.
https://www.theatlantic.com/entertainment/archive/2010/06/slaves-who-liked-slavery/58678/