Perhaps you might want to re-read some German history. They were not a majority party in the Reichstag but did hold the highest number of seats. It was President von Hindenberg who appointed Hitler Chancellor at which point he was able to seize full power. The last "free" election took place in March 1933 and even then NSDAP only won 43% of the popular vote. I don't think this qualifies as a majority. Perhaps there were 3-5 million fraudulent votes cast so in Hitler's mind it was a terrific majority.
Them's the facts.
And this changes my point, how?
The point remains that many tens of millions of individuals in Germany supported Hitler and the Nazis,
They provided him with the support, moral support, for his policies.
Just as an aside why do you think Donald Trump is doing what he is doing right now, over and above some pretty vocal protests?
Could it be that he believes he has a mandate, a moral foundation, for his actions?
No-one can accuse him of being underhand about this - he has been volubly, garrulously proclaiming what he would do for more than a year should he be elected.
I do not like at all what he is about but he is doing exactly now what he said he would do before...
In this at least a refreshing change from most politicians.
Also, on what basis are these protesters protesting?
Could it be that they believe that there is a moral imperative here?
If so, on what basis can they claim this?
After all Donald Trump has been legally elected President of the United States.
Executive orders are perfectly legal per se (a mistake in my opinion - but there you go!).
Some believe that some or all the contents of that executive order can be successfully overturned by the courts but that has yet to be determined.
The protesters clearly do not like Trump nor do they like his policies but that is neither here nor there and does not form any kind of foundation for a moral imperative.
Clearly they must believe that there is a transcendent principle that is in danger of being violated - in other words some things are always wrong.
Whether this does in fact turn out to be the case is also still to be determined.
Nonetheless, these protests are meaningless on every level apart from the moral level.
Donald Trump is not breaking the law (or this has not been shown to be the case yet - and I am pretty sure he would not have taken this step if had been advised that this order could and would overturned on constitutional grounds at a flick of some judges pen).
Yet, if morals are just something that someone believes today - even if collectevized (horrible term) - then what about tomorrow should we change our minds?
Morals are then reduced to a matter of opinion.
We all understand that laws come and go, but laws and morals are definitely not the same!
Political parties and political policies come and go in the same way.
But for morals to be morals there has to be a transcendent quality to them otherwise they are just fashion and opinion.
I responded to a post Torbjorn wrote (apologies for not getting the spelling exact) where, he, despite denying the existence of transcendental quality to morality then made a point (which I quoted) where he said that that murder and child abuse are always wrong and he gave the reason why he thought that was the case.
To him, not only was this self-evident, but it was clear that he felt that this should be self-evident to everyone else as well.
My question is why?
Why should a statement like that be self-evident to anyone who reads it?
In my response I clearly showed how the apparently self-evident can be turned on its head - both individually and collectively.
The only way that that statement can be self-evident (under any circumstances) is if it does indeed have a transcendent quality.
Maybe Torbjorn did not realize that he was contradicting himself.
Another response to my post took some of the examples I gave and extended them both back into history as well as forward to the last couple of decades.
It appears, given the examples quoted, that the the thrust of the post was that Christians have been responsible for many of history's tragedies.
This is correct.
However, I also think that the implication was that, as Christians, they should have known better.
I also agree wholeheartedly with this.
However, to then say that because they did, in fact, not do better, that this somehow proves Christian morality and ethics false and also the broader concept of transcendent quality of morality as null and void, does not follow logically.
What it does conclusively prove is that any individual, whatever label is attached to describe him or her, is prone to moral failure and will actually commit evil acts.
This is true whether one's deeds are committed to history or not, or whether one is found guilty of a crime or not, or whether any third-party is aware of those evil acts or not.
It certainly does not disprove the transcendent quality of morality.
Taking this kind of argument to the realm of law:
All (almost all?) legal jurisdictions on earth have laws prohibiting murder - it is against the law to murder.
All (almost all?) societies, as a whole, accept the legal position on murder.
Yet there is not a legal jurisdiction on earth where murder has not been committed (I be you someone will dig up some obscure example to contradict me here!!) and the laws pertaining to murder are on the statute books precisely because it could happen.
Laws against murder do not prevent murder.
Yet does anybody believe those laws are a failure because they fail to prevent murder?
Isn't it rather silly to dismiss the notion that murder (or any other form of evil) is wrong as a transcendent moral imperative because it can be ignored either individually or collectively yet endorse man-made legislation that is just as powerless to prevent the same thing?
This is not an argument about how many, or how few, murders, crimes, moral failures, or evil acts occur in different places around the world in different jurisdictions merely that they occur.
Tony Jay